Saturday, November 21, 2009

what does "at no time did Roman women live in the semi-oriental seclusion which women lived in Greece" mean

what does "at no time did Roman women live in the semi-oriental seclusion which women lived in Greece" mean?
I need to write a paper and compare the greeks and romans in their sexual pursuits, but i'm not sure what this passage from one of the readings means.. anyone have any ideas?
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Some scholars in the past have argued that Athenian houses were physically divided into two separate areas, one for the men and one for the women. Two often quoted texts support this view. The first, by the fourth century BCE author, Xenophon, is an account of an Athenian householder conducting his new bride around the house. He showed her how the women’s apartment is separated from the men’s apartment by a bolted door. [2] The second text, written in the same century by Lysias, reports a speech by a man attempting to explain how it was possible his wife had been committing adultery in his own home without his knowledge. He said he had a modest, two-story home with the women’s apartment upstairs and the men’s apartment downstairs. After the birth of their baby they reversed this arrangement so that his wife could nurse the baby in the middle of the night without fear of falling down the stairs in the dark. [3] This is not much to go on, but it fitted nicely with the texts suggesting that a woman’s world was inside the home and helped to perpetuate the idea that women lived in “oriental seclusion.”






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